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Anandaday Misshra
Founder & Managing Partner, AMLEGALS
DPDPA compliance means meeting the duties in the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and the DPDP Rules, 2025. The Rules were notified on 13 November 2025 and most duties apply from 13 May 2027. Each guide below covers one part of the work and names the provision behind it.

The seven workstreams of a DPDPA compliance programme, the provision behind each one, and what each one produces.
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Twelve steps in the order that avoids rework, from data mapping to breach readiness, each with the provision it answers to.
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The 12 areas a DPDPA audit checks, the evidence it asks for, how gaps are rated and what the audit produces.
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Ten points to check on a website or app, from the privacy notice and cookie consent to forms, trackers and rights requests.
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How the DPDPA fits with CERT-In, the IT Act, RBI, SEBI and IRDAI duties, and how to run them as one plan.
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The mandatory audit under Section 10 and Rule 13: who is covered, the annual cycle, the scope and the Board report.
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What a fractional DPO does, who must appoint one, and how an outsourced model fulfils every Section 10 duty.
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What a DPDPA retainer covers: quarterly reviews, breach support, Board queries, vendor updates and annual audit coordination.
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How the Board inquiry works, the Section 33(2) mitigating factors, penalty ceilings and the Appellate Tribunal route.
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What a RoPA contains, why the DPDPA requires it in practice, and the fields needed to support every statutory duty.
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The four Data Principal rights, the Rule 14 timelines, the verification process and the evidence trail for each request.
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What a DPDPA notice must contain under Section 5 and Rule 3: itemised purposes, rights, withdrawal and Board complaint.
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How to evaluate and configure a CMP that meets Section 6 consent conditions, Section 6(4) withdrawal and the Rule 4 Consent Manager framework.
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How the DPDPA applies to employee data: consent vs Section 7, background checks, biometrics, monitoring and HR data transfers.
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Section 9 restrictions on children’s data: no tracking, no targeted ads, verifiable parental consent, and what it means for EdTech platforms.
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DPDPA plus RBI: consent harmonisation, alternative data, credit scoring, account aggregators and data localisation for fintech.
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Consent for profiling and targeting, the children’s advertising ban, withdrawal and erasure, and what changes for marketing teams.
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Role-based DPDPA training for staff, DPOs and boards, tied to the duties under Section 8, Section 6 and the DPDP Rules, 2025.
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What a DPIA is under Section 2(f), when Section 10(2)(c) and Rule 13 make it mandatory, and how to run one.
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How the Board is constituted under Section 18, its functions under Section 27, its powers under Section 28, and how to complain and appeal.
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The right to grievance redressal under Section 13, the contact duty under Section 8(10), timelines, and the route to the Board.
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Access (S.11), correction and erasure (S.12), grievance redressal (S.13) and nomination (S.14), with duties in S.15.
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Who is a child, verifiable parental consent, the ban on tracking and targeted advertising, and age verification under Rule 10.
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How deceptive design undermines valid consent under Section 6, and how it meets the 2023 dark patterns guidelines.
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The DPDPA drops the separate sensitive data category. What changed from the SPDI Rules and where heightened duties remain.
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How the DPDPA governs AI that processes personal data: lawful basis, accuracy, erasure, and what the Act does not contain.
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The DPDPA is not a localisation law. How Section 16 transfer works, and where sector rules still require storage in India.
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The penalty amounts in the Schedule, how the Board sets a figure under Section 33(2), and the honest enforcement position.
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Consent versus opt-out, the sale of data concept, child age thresholds, and enforcement compared across India and California.
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DPDPA obligations for biometric processing—fingerprints, facial recognition, CCTV, Aadhaar—including consent, security safeguards and penalties.
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How the Puttaswamy judgment (2017) recognised the right to privacy as a fundamental right and laid the constitutional foundation for the DPDPA.
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DPDPA obligations for organisations using AWS, Azure and GCP—Data Processor accountability, cross-border transfers and security safeguards.
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DPDPA obligations for health data—hospitals, healthtech, insurers, clinical researchers—covering consent, security and sector-specific rules.
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How the DPDPA governs AI systems in India, covering consent, accuracy, security—and the governance gaps that future legislation must fill.
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Section 17 government exemptions under the DPDPA—scope, constitutional limits and the tension with the Right to Information Act.
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Section 8(7) erasure obligation—building a data retention policy that maps data categories to purposes and automates deletion.
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How to embed DPDPA compliance—purpose limitation, consent, security, erasure—into system architecture from inception.
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DPDPA encryption obligations—Section 8(5), Rule 6, industry benchmarks and sector-specific mandates for data at rest and in transit.
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The full DPDPA enforcement timeline—from August 2023 enactment to May 2027 full effect—with practical preparation milestones.
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DPDPA obligations for multinationals and Global Capability Centres—cross-border transfers, local DPO, group-wide consent and operational compliance.
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DPDPA breach notification—intimation without delay, 72-hour detailed report (Rule 7), CERT-In parallel obligation and penalty ceilings.
Read the guidePrivacy touches every part of an organisation. We bring legal interpretation, governance and implementation into one conversation.
Understand your position. Map the gaps. Put notices, consent, contracts and operating procedures into place.
Explore DPDPA advisoryCoordinate Indian requirements with the privacy frameworks that govern your international operations.
Explore global privacyConnect AI use cases with legal review, human oversight, vendor terms and evidence of responsible operation.
Explore AI advisoryFind guidance for the decisions on your desk.
A patient record, a payment journey and an AI training dataset raise different questions. Start with the context of your business.
Compliance is a file, not a claim. Fifty-six exhibits. Every obligation, mapped to a control, an owner and an artefact.
Open The DPDPA FileOnce notified an SDF, Section 10 read with Rule 13 adds an India-based DPO, an independent auditor, DPIAs and algorithmic due diligence. The exhibit lists each duty and its artefact.
A governance framework built from the DPDPA statutory text — not translated from the GDPR. It measures your compliance stance against all 44 Sections and 23 Rules, and resolves to one Board-ready number.
A single Board-ready index, assessed against the Act and the Rules — reported the way a finance committee reads a metric.
The systematic conversion of legal, regulatory, contractual and governance obligations into continuously operating business systems that can be measured, monitored and independently verified — organised across ten engineering disciplines.
Section 3(b) extends India's data protection regime to every organisation offering goods or services to Data Principals in India — regardless of where it is incorporated.
A GDPR programme cannot be transplanted to the DPDPA. The Board examines Indian law. Not your global framework.
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Section 16 permits transfers today. It can restrict them by executive notification tomorrow. The architecture must exist before that day.
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The gap discovered in the legal memo is the one that kills the transaction. The investors who find it have already decided.
Read the analysisThe Schedule prescribes the maximum. The Board determines the quantum under Section 33.
The only variable is your evidence — and when you begin building it.
Choose your role and priority to find relevant guidance across the practice.
Articles, compliance analyses, working resources and answers from the AMLEGALS privacy practice.
Consent obtained minus consent understood equals zero legal defence. The gap between collection and validity is where the penalties live.
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Companies that invest in trust outperform those that invest in damage control. Here is the model and the maths behind it.
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Fifty organisations from BFSI and pharma to IT services and manufacturing. The gap between awareness and action is staggering.
Read ↗Each analysis maps a specific obligation to its operational reality — statutory text, regulatory overlap, implementation architecture and evidence requirements.
44 Sections. 23 Rules. One knowledge architecture — from statutory analysis to sector-specific compliance, from Board governance to operational implementation.
Twenty-eight answers, each grounded in the statutory text rather than in a vendor's framework.
All DPDPA FAQs ↗Tell us what you are working on. The practitioner with the relevant statutory expertise will respond directly. Confidential. Counsel-led. Statutory basis from the first engagement.
AMLEGALS advises on the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and the DPDP Rules, 2025, including gap assessments, notices and consent architecture, processor contracts, breach response, Significant Data Fiduciary readiness and DPO support. The practice is led by Anandaday Misshra, Founder & Managing Partner, with more than 28 years of overall legal and regulatory experience. Contact: https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/contact or [email protected] or [email protected].
The DPDPA Exposure Assessment at https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-exposure-assessment asks where your personal data sits; a partner replies within one working day with a first view on your penalty exposure. Highest listed maximum for a specified contravention: ₹250 crore under the Schedule to the Act.
The enquiry is routed to the firm's data privacy team ([email protected] or [email protected]). A partner reviews the facts you share and responds with a first view and a proposed scope. Confidential lawyer-client communications for legal advice may attract privilege, subject to applicable law.
Yes. The Act applies to processing of digital personal data outside India where the processing is connected with any activity relating to the offering of goods or services to Data Principals within the territory of India. The statutory test is the offering of goods or services within India — not the citizenship or residence of the individual. AMLEGALS advises overseas businesses offering goods or services to individuals in India, including on cross-border transfer and processor contracts. Contact: https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/contact.
The Act and Rules follow phased commencement. Institutional provisions commenced on 13 November 2025; Consent Manager provisions commence after 12 months on 13 November 2026; and the principal Data Fiduciary, rights, breach, security and enforcement provisions commence after 18 months on 13 May 2027.
Section 8(6) requires every Data Fiduciary to inform both the Data Protection Board of India and each affected Data Principal of a personal data breach. Rule 7 prescribes a staged model: affected Data Principals must be intimated without delay; the Board must receive an initial intimation without delay; and a detailed report must follow to the Board within 72 hours of becoming aware of the breach, or such longer period as the Board may allow on request. Failure to take reasonable security safeguards can attract a penalty of up to ₹250 crore, as determined by the Board after inquiry under Section 33 and the Schedule.
Under Section 10, the Central Government may notify a Data Fiduciary as Significant based on the volume and sensitivity of data processed, risk to Data Principals and other prescribed factors. SDFs carry enhanced obligations including a mandatory DPO appointment based in India, periodic audits by independent auditors, and Data Protection Impact Assessments. Rule 13 requires a DPIA and audit once in every twelve-month period from notification and a report of significant observations to the Board.
A Data Protection Officer based in India is mandatory for Significant Data Fiduciaries under Section 10(2). Other Data Fiduciaries must publish the business contact information of a DPO, if applicable, or of a person able to answer questions about processing (Section 8(9) read with Rule 9).
Section 9 requires verifiable parental consent before processing a child's data, meaning anyone below eighteen years. Data Fiduciaries must not undertake tracking, behavioural monitoring or targeted advertising directed at children. Rule 10 prescribes the manner of obtaining verifiable parental consent. Processing that may cause a detrimental effect is prohibited, and the penalty for non-compliance is up to ₹200 crore, as determined by the Board after inquiry under Section 33 and the Schedule. These duties are subject to the exemptions in Section 9 read with Rule 12 and the Fourth Schedule.
Rule 15 supplements Section 16. While Section 16 empowers the Central Government to restrict transfers to notified countries on a negative-list approach, Rule 15 further allows requiring that personal data made available to any foreign State, its agencies or persons or entities under its control meet prescribed requirements. Sectoral localisation mandates under the RBI, IRDAI and SEBI continue to apply independently. Unlike the GDPR, the DPDPA does not require adequacy decisions for permitted jurisdictions.
Section 7 of the Act permits processing for “certain legitimate uses” without fresh consent in defined situations. This concept was described during the Bill stage as “deemed consent”, but the enacted terminology is “certain legitimate uses under Section 7”.
Yes. Section 8(1) makes the Data Fiduciary responsible for compliance in respect of processing undertaken by it or on its behalf by a Data Processor. Section 8(2) requires a Data Fiduciary to engage a Data Processor under a valid contract. Detailed contractual clause architecture is an implementation best practice guided by Section 8(2).
A programme typically covers a personal data inventory and data map, notices (Section 5, Rule 3), consent and consent-withdrawal flows (Section 6), processor contracts (Section 8(2)), security safeguards (Rule 6), breach intimation procedures (Rule 7), erasure schedules (Rule 8), Data Principal rights handling (Rule 14), children's data controls (Rule 10) and, for SDFs, DPIA, audit and DPO (Rule 13).
Sector briefings cover banking and BFSI, fintech and NBFCs, healthcare and pharma, EdTech, e-commerce and D2C, SaaS and IT services, telecom, insurance, HR and staffing, hospitality, online gaming and government vendors. See https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-exposure-assessment.
India's framework is the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 (Presidential assent 11 August 2023; 44 sections) read with the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025, notified on 13 November 2025 (G.S.R. 846(E)) with 23 Rules and 7 Schedules.
The Schedule sets a ceiling of up to ₹250 crore for failure to take reasonable security safeguards and up to ₹200 crore for failure to meet the additional obligations relating to children, as determined by the Board after inquiry. These are ceilings, not fixed charges. Section 33(2) requires consideration of factors including the nature, gravity and duration of the breach, the type of data, repetition and mitigation.
The Act applies to processing of digital personal data outside India where the processing is connected with any activity relating to the offering of goods or services to Data Principals within the territory of India. The statutory test is the offering of goods or services within India — not the citizenship or residence of the individual.
Section 6 requires consent that is free, specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous, given by a clear affirmative action and limited to data necessary for the specified purpose. Section 5 read with Rule 3 requires a notice accompanying or preceding the consent request that itemises the data and purposes and explains how to exercise rights. Withdrawal must be comparable in ease to giving consent under Section 6(4). Section 7 permits specified uses, subject to their conditions, including employment, certain State functions and medical emergencies; it is not a general public-interest permission.
Section 6 requires consent that is free, specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous, given by a clear affirmative action and limited to data necessary for the specified purpose. Section 5 read with Rule 3 requires a notice accompanying or preceding the consent request that itemises the data and purposes and explains how to exercise rights. Withdrawal must be comparable in ease to giving consent under Section 6(4). Section 7 permits specified uses, subject to their conditions, including employment, certain State functions and medical emergencies; it is not a general public-interest permission.
Data Principals have the right to access information about processing (Section 11), correction, completion, updating and erasure (Section 12), grievance redressal (Section 13) and nomination (Section 14). Rule 14 governs the manner in which these rights are exercised.
Section 8(5) requires reasonable security safeguards to prevent personal data breach. Rule 6 specifies minimum measures including encryption, obfuscation, masking or virtual tokens, access control, visibility over access through logs and monitoring, measures for continued processing after compromise, and retention of logs for one year unless otherwise required by law.
Section 8(7) requires erasure once the specified purpose is no longer served or consent is withdrawn, unless retention is required by law. Rule 8 and the Third Schedule prescribe time periods for specified classes of Data Fiduciaries, with prior intimation to the Data Principal before erasure.
The laws have different structures. Section 16 of the DPDPA allows the Government to restrict transfers to notified countries; GDPR provides transfer mechanisms including adequacy decisions and appropriate safeguards. The DPDPA has no right to data portability and enforcement sits with the Data Protection Board. Its penalties have rupee-denominated ceilings, not fixed charges or turnover-based percentages. Its scope includes data collected digitally and data collected in non-digital form and digitised later.
The GDPR (Regulation (EU) 2016/679) has applied since 25 May 2018. Article 33 requires notification of a personal data breach to the supervisory authority without undue delay and, where feasible, within 72 hours. Article 83 sets administrative fines of up to €20 million or 4% of total worldwide annual turnover, whichever is higher, for the most serious infringements.
The EU AI Act (Regulation (EU) 2024/1689) entered into force on 1 August 2024 and applies in phases: prohibited AI practices from 2 February 2025 and general-purpose AI model obligations from 2 August 2025, with later phases for other obligations. Where an AI system processes personal data of individuals in India, DPDPA obligations apply in parallel.
Saudi Arabia's Personal Data Protection Law, issued by Royal Decree M/19 of 2021, came into effect on 14 September 2023 and is supervised by the Saudi Data & AI Authority (SDAIA). Businesses serving both Saudi and Indian individuals must map obligations under each law separately.
The UAE federal Personal Data Protection Law is Federal Decree-Law No. 45 of 2021. Financial free zones such as DIFC and ADGM have their own data protection regimes. Businesses processing personal data of individuals in India must also address DPDPA separately.
The Schedule lists maximum penalties per category of contravention: up to ₹250 crore for failure to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a personal data breach; up to ₹200 crore for failure to intimate a personal data breach to the Board or affected Data Principals; up to ₹200 crore for non-fulfilment of additional obligations relating to children; up to ₹150 crore for non-fulfilment of additional obligations of a Significant Data Fiduciary; up to ₹10,000 for breach of the duties of a Data Principal under Section 15; and up to ₹50 crore for breach of any other provision of the Act or Rules.
The Data Protection Board of India is established under Section 18 of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023. It inquires into personal data breaches and complaints, directs urgent remedial or mitigation measures and imposes penalties under Section 33. Its constitution and functioning provisions (Rules 1, 2 and 17–21) commenced on 13 November 2025.
Yes. Under Section 29, a person aggrieved by an order or direction of the Data Protection Board may appeal to the Appellate Tribunal (the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal) within sixty days. Rule 22 governs the manner of appeal.
Under Section 32, the Data Protection Board may accept a voluntary undertaking from a person in respect of any matter related to observance of the Act at any stage of proceedings. Acceptance bars proceedings on the contents of the undertaking, except where the person fails to adhere to it.
A Consent Manager is a person registered with the Data Protection Board that acts as a single point of contact enabling a Data Principal to give, manage, review and withdraw consent through an accessible, transparent and interoperable platform (Section 2(g) and Section 6(7)–(9)). Rule 4 and the First Schedule govern registration and obligations; these provisions commence on 13 November 2026.
Section 15 requires Data Principals to comply with applicable law, not impersonate another person, not suppress material information when providing personal data for official documents, not register false or frivolous grievances or complaints, and furnish only verifiably authentic information when exercising the right to correction or erasure. Breach can attract a penalty of up to ₹10,000.
Rule 14 requires Data Fiduciaries and Consent Managers to publish the means by which Data Principals can exercise rights and to respond to grievances within a period not exceeding ninety days. Under Section 13(3), a Data Principal must exhaust the grievance redressal opportunity before approaching the Board.
The Third Schedule, read with Rule 8, specifies that e-commerce entities and social media intermediaries with at least two crore registered users in India, and online gaming intermediaries with at least fifty lakh registered users in India, must erase personal data three years after the Data Principal last approached them or exercised rights, subject to listed exceptions. At least forty-eight hours before erasure, the Data Principal must be informed that the data will be erased unless they log in or initiate contact.
Under Section 2 of the Act, a child is an individual who has not completed eighteen years of age. Processing a child's personal data requires verifiable consent of a parent or lawful guardian (Section 9, Rule 10). Rule 11 addresses persons with disability who have a lawful guardian.
Yes. Digital personal data of employees is within scope. Section 7(i) recognises processing for purposes of employment or for safeguarding the employer from loss or liability, such as preventing corporate espionage and maintaining confidentiality of trade secrets, as a certain legitimate use; notice, security, retention and rights obligations otherwise continue to apply.
No. The laws differ on scope, lawful grounds, children, breach intimation, penalties and cross-border rules. On becoming aware of a personal data breach, a Data Fiduciary must (1) intimate each affected Data Principal without delay, (2) give the Data Protection Board an initial description without delay, and (3) furnish the Board with updated and detailed information within 72 hours — or such longer period as the Board may allow on request. There is no blanket 72-hour deadline for notifying Data Principals. Existing GDPR programmes need a documented India gap assessment. AMLEGALS carries this out for foreign companies: https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-for-companies.
Cost depends on the volume and sensitivity of personal data, the number of systems, vendors and touchpoints, cross-border flows and whether the entity is or may be notified as a Significant Data Fiduciary. AMLEGALS scopes this after a first review; an indicative guide is at https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-compliance-cost-india and enquiries go to https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/contact.
Yes. AMLEGALS provides Data Protection Officer support, including for entities that must publish the contact of a person able to answer questions about processing under Section 8(9) and Rule 9, and readiness for Significant Data Fiduciary obligations under Section 10 and Rule 13. Details: https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpo-as-a-service.
Yes. The breach response practice covers containment advice, intimation to affected Data Principals and the Data Protection Board under Rule 7, parallel CERT-In reporting where applicable, and post-incident remediation. See https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/data-breach-response-dpdpa or write to [email protected] or [email protected].
Free resources include the DPDPA compliance checklist (https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-compliance-checklist), penalty calculator (https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-penalty-calculator), readiness check (https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-readiness-check), document guides (https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-documents) and DPDPA Studio (https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-studio). Content is general legal information and not legal advice.
Anandaday Misshra is Founder & Managing Partner of AMLEGALS, with more than 28 years of overall legal and regulatory experience. The team is listed at https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/team.
Statutory statements are taken from the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 (G.S.R. 846(E), 13 November 2025), as published by MeitY. Law reviewed as on 27 July 2026. Content is general legal information and not legal advice.
Send the enquiry form at https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/contact, write to [email protected] or [email protected], or start with the DPDPA Exposure Assessment at https://amlegalsdpdpa.com/dpdpa-exposure-assessment. Include your sector, where personal data is collected, key vendors and any cross-border flows so the first response can be specific.
Contact AMLEGALS about DPDPA compliance in India · DPDPA Exposure Assessment